- Surgical Technologist Certification Exam Study Guide Download For Pc
- Certification For Surgical Technologist Exam
- Surgical Technologist Exam Study Guide
- Certification For Surgical Technologist
- Surgical Technologist Certification Exam Study Guide Download For Windows
175 Questions | By Tigger28384 | Last updated: Feb 22, 2013
Surgical Technologist Certification Exam Study Guide Download For Pc
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Certification For Surgical Technologist Exam
Surgical Technologist Exam Study Guide
SURGICAL TECHNOLOGIST CERTIFYING EXAM STUDY GUIDE, 3RD Ed. PRACTICE EXAM #1: EXPLANATIONS WITH REFERENCES Reference Key Alex. Surgical technologist should stand on the same side as the surgeon. (ST for ST 376 ). The surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery is the lateral position with the operative site. If you find benefit from our efforts here, check out our premium quality Certified Surgical Technologist study guide to take your studying to the next level. Just click the Certified Surgical Technologist study guide link below. Your purchase also helps us make even more great, free surgical technologist certification content for test-takers.
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Surgical Technologist Certification Exam Study Guide Download For Windows
- The needs or activities related to one's identification or interaction with another individual or group forms which component of the human being?
- Social
- Psychological
- Physical
- Physiological
- If adult response is the norm, pediatric patients must be observed for which response?
- No variants in response
- Paradoxical responses to some drugs
- Increased crying
- Decreased consciousness
- Which term describes the following coping mechanism: 'A patient tries to give excuses as to why he or she has a particular illness'?
- Regression
- Rationalization
- Denial
- Repression
- The critical parameters for monitoring pediatric patients include all of the following EXCEPT__________.
- Temperature
- Urine output
- Oxygenation
- Turgor
- Bleeding in a pediatric trauma patient must be controlled to prevent _________.
- Brachial plexus injury
- Infiltration
- Distension
- Severe hypovolemia
- During abdominal procedures on patients who are obese, what procedure might additionally be performed due to newly identified pathology?
- Pancreatectomy
- Whipple
- Cholecystectomy
- Splenectomy
- What disease is NOT an autoimmune disease?
- Multiple sclerosis
- AIDS
- Lupus erythematosus
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- A.
- B.
- C.Shift the uterus to gain better access to the abdominal contents
- Prevent preterm labor
- Emergency procedures on geriatric patients are associated with __________.
- Better preoperative planning
- Higher mortality
- Trauma
- Failure to minimize postoperative stress of hypothermia and hypoxemia
- The ___________ is the number one organ injured in a motor vehicle accident.
- Heart
- Liver
- Spleen
- Abdominal aorta
- Why should cabinets and doors within the operating room be recessed into the wall?
- Prevent injuries
- Easy opening
- Prevent dust accumulation
- Cleaning purposes
- When an electrical charge is in motion, it is referred to as a(n) _________.
- Electrical current
- Active current
- Open current
- Closed current
- What is used to create a pathway for electrical current to be returned from the patinet back to the ESU?
- Bovie cord
- Grounding pad
- Ground wire
- Conducting gel
- Which machine found in the decontamination room uses cavitation?
- Ultrasonic washer
- Washer sterilizer
- Dry heat
- Flash sterilizer
- A unidirectional positive -pressure flow of air that captures microbes to be filtered in known as _________.
- Negative airflow
- Pressurized air
- Laminar airflow
- Sterile airflow
- ____________ means microbes and infection are absent.
- Sterile
- Surgically clean
- Decontaminated
- Disinfected
- Fluid bottles may be recapped and reused under what conditions?
- The fluid is to be warmed
- The bottle is sterile
- The pourer is wearing gloves
- None: the bottle may not be recapped
- The ___________ is used to remove small organic particles and soil from areas of instruments that are difficult to clean manually.
- Ultrasonic washer
- CUSA
- Wire brush
- Gas sterilizer
- Which classification is given to bacteria that can survive in an environment with or without oxygen?
- Facultative anaerobes
- Microaerophiles
- Capnophiles
- Obligate anaerobes
- Which is the most commonly transmitted bacteria in the operating room?
- Candida albicans
- Cornebacterium jeikeium
- Staphlococcus aureus
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Which microorganisms is capable of causing an UTI?
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Staphylococcus epidermidis
- Streptococcus pyogenes
- Streptococcus agalactiae
- Gas gangrene and cellulitis is caused by which microorganism?
- Klebsiella pneumoniae
- Pasteurella multocida
- Clostridium perfringens
- E. coli
- The scope used for visualization of a fetus in utero is called a(n) _____________.
- Laryngoscope
- Fetoscope
- Hysteroscope
- Colonoscope
- Sponges used for procedures requiring smaller incisions are called _______.
- Laparotomy
- Neurosurgical
- Raytec
- Tonsil
- A Tru-Cut needle is used _____.
- To obtain a biopsy
- During cardiovascular procedures
- To introduce angioplasty-guiding catheters
- To irrigate open arteries
- Small, clear, plastic drapes with openings that are surrounded by an adhesive backing are called __________ drapes.
- Incise
- Isolation
- Reusable
- Aperture
- Postoperative instrument handling involves all of the following steps EXCEPT __________.
- Cleaning and decontamination
- Reassembly
- Preparation
- Distribution
- Curved needle holders are generally used during ____________ procedures.
- Orthopedic
- Cardiovascular procedures
- Gynecological
- Plastic and reconstructive
- While the STSR is passing instruments, the surgeon is focused on the
- Exchange
- Procedure
- Operating room setup
- Anesthesia delivery
- Items are counted in which order for every procedure?
- Sharps, sponges, instruments
- Instruments, sharps, sponges
- Sponges, instruments, sharps
- Sponges, sharps, instruments
- Which term means loss of heat from the patient's body to the environment?
- Convection
- Rediation
- Conduction
- Evaporation
- Which diagnostic imaging procedure allows the surgeon to view anatomic strutures during the surgical procedures?
- Conventional X-ray
- Ultrasound
- Fluoroscopy
- MRI
- The display and recording of the electrical activity of skeletal muscle is called a (n)
- EEG
- ECG
- EMG
- PET scan
- Arterial saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen is measured with the use of ___________.
- Pulse oximetry
- Capnography
- Spirometry
- Plethysmography
- Correct placement of indwelling catheters, tubes, and drains may be varified by ________________.
- Radiography
- Pulse oximetry
- Ausculation
- Endoscopy
- Which diagnostic procedure uses high-frequency sound waves?
- MRI
- PET
- Ultrasound
- CT
- The beta cells of the islets of Langerhans are responsible for the production of ________________.
- Vitamin K
- Glucagon
- Insulin
- Somatostatin
- Nissen fundoplication is the procedure performed to correct a (n)_______________.
- Gastric ulcer
- Inguinal hernia
- Hiatal hernia
- Ruptured tubal pregnancy
- An end ileostomy is created from the ___________.
- Transverse colon
- Descending colon
- Terminal ileum
- Sigmoid colon
- Modified radical mastectomy involves removal of _____________.
- The breast, acillary lymph nodes, and pectoral muscles
- The breast and axillary lymph nodes
- A wedge of breast tissue
- The breast
- Which of the following describes the anatomic area that will be prepped for a laparotomy?
- Midchest to midthighs and bilaterally
- Chin to knees and bilaterally
- Shoulders to hips and bilaterally
- Midchest to iliac crests and bilaterally
- Mastectomy is the removal of the ____________.
- Entire mammary breast
- Entire breast and pectoral muscles
- Entire breast, pectoral muscles, and axillary lymph nodes
- Tumor only, preserving subcutaneous tissue for reconstruction
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
- 44.
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
- 45.
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
- 46.
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
- 47.A currette is a surgical instrument used to __________.
- Dilate an opening
- Marsupialize a cyst
- Remove tissue by scraping
- Provide traction
- Which female gland secretes a lubricating mucoid substance?
- Cowper's gland
- Pineal gland
- Bartholin's gland
- Sudoriferous gland
- What is the function of the iris?
- To alter the shape of the crystalline lens during accommodation
- To regulate the amount of light entering the eye through the pupil
- To produce tears
- To allow the optic nerve to carry visual impulses to the brain
- Where are the lacrimal glands located?
- On the surface of the conjunctiva
- Within the upper eyelids
- Within the lower eyelids
- In the lateral corners of the eye
- Why is Gelfoam used in ENT surgical procedures?
- Achieve hemostasis
- Reduce edema
- Reduce high blood pressure
- Increase body temperature
- What does the term apnea mean?
- Not breathing
- Cardiac arrest
- Deaf
- Deviated septum
- Panendoscopy may involve viewing of the __________.
- Lungs
- Stomach
- Esophagus
- Bronchi
- What structures are removed during UPPP?
- Tonsils, adenoids, uvula, portion of the soft palate
- Adenoids, tongue, lingual tonsils, portion of the soft palate
- Tonsils, adenoids, nasal cartilage, all of the soft palate
- Adenoids, tonsils, tonsillar fossa, nasal cartilage
- What is a major concern when operating on the parotid gland?
- Inability to produce saliva post-op
- Damange to the ossicles
- Carotid artery
- Facial nerve
- During a tonsillectomy, which instrument can be used to put tension on the tonsil during dissection?
- Jensen Middleton
- Long Allis
- Rosen knife
- Aufricht retractor
- Crescent-shaped cartilage found in the TMJ and knee joints is the _________.
- Sagittal
- Symphysis
- Ramus
- Meniscus
- Which of the following is an action of epinephrine?
- Bronchodilation
- Vasoconstriction
- Analgesia
- Anticoagulant
- Which radiographic view shows the hard palate, nasal septum, orbital floor, and zygoma?
- Water's view
- Caldwell view
- Panoramic view
- Lateral facial view
- All are true regarding throat packs EXCEPT that ___________.
- Throat packs consist of rolled gauze that contains a radiopaque marker
- Throat packs are kept dry and used to prevent oral secretions, irrigation fluid, blood, and bone or tooth fragments from becoming lodged in the pharaynx
- The throat pack should be removed prior to extubation
- The throat pack should included in the formal count
- Which muscle is responsible for flexing the hand at the wrist?
- Abductor pollicis brevis
- Extensor digitorum
- Palmaris longus
- Adductor pollicis
- A cosmetic procedure performed on the eyelid is a (n) ___________.
- Blepharoplasty
- Suction lipectomy
- Rhinoplasty
- Augmentation
- Which of the following best describes the area of the skin preparation for a reduction mammoplasty?
- Chest and breast, shoulders to xiphoid process
- Chest and breast, chin to xiphoid process including axilla
- Chest and breast, chin to hips including axilla
- Chest and breast, shoulders to hips
- How many phalanges are in a normal hand?
- 12
- 14
- 16
- 18
- Which of the following is a topical anesthetic inserted into the nose prior to a plastic nasal procedure?
- Bupivacaine
- Tetracaine
- Meperidine
- Fentanyl
- Which type of instrument will be attached to the Mayo stand during a cleft palate repair?
- Cottle elevator
- Bookwalter
- Weitlaner
- Self-retaining mouth gag
- Which type of flap allows the tissue to be transfered to remain attached to its blood supply?
- Free flap
- Pedicle flap
- Skin tag
- De Quervain's
- Which portion of the renal tubule system is responsible for increasing the surface area for enhanced absorption and secretion?
- Bowman's capsule
- Distal convoluted tubule
- Loop of Henle
- Poximal convoluted tubule
- What surgical instrument is used to remove tissue fragments from within the bladder during a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)?
- Resectoscope
- Urethrotome
- Ellik evacuator
- Urethral forceps
- The right kidney is located slightly lower that the left, due to the _________.
- Liver
- Pancreas
- Spleen
- Transverse abdominal
- The kidneys are bounded by the __________ muscles on the medical side.
- Detrusor
- Cremaster
- Psoas
- Transverse abdominal
- If the ureters are difficult to identify when the bladder is opened, intravenous __________ may facilitate locating the orifices.
- Methylene blue
- Gentian violet
- Indigo carmine
- Omnipaque
- A softening of adult bone due to a disorder in calcium and phosphorus metabolism is called _________.
- Osteochondritis
- Osteogenesis
- Osteomalacia
- Osteonecrosis
- Which of the following constitutes the anterior portion of the coxal bone?
- Ischium
- Ilium
- Sacrum
- Pubis
- Which style of cast is applied to the trunk, around the affected leg, and around half of the unaffected leg?
- Long-leg cast
- Cylinder cast
- Hip spica
- Body jacket
- The coronary arteries arise form the ________.
- Arota
- Vena cavae
- Pulmonary artery
- Subclavian artery
- What medical term refers to the abdominal accumulation of air in the pleural cavity?
- Pneumocentesis
- Pneumothorax
- Pleural effusion
- Thoracic outlet syndrome
- Which mechanical device is designed for circulatory support after cardiac procedure?
- Cell saver
- Fogarty embolectomy catheter
- Intra-aortic balloon pump
- Arterial line
- The trachea divides at the ________ into right and left bronchi.
- Glottis
- Carina
- Epiglottis
- Bronchioles
- Symptomatic lesions of the mediastinum are malignanat in _______% of all patients?
- 50
- 20
- 60
- 10
- For the posterolateral position, the operating room personnel should have which of the following available?
- 2 inch adhesive tape
- Beanbag
- Extra arm board
- Shoulder rests
- Which veins receive blood from the brain, meninges, and deeper regions of the face and neck?
- Brachiocephalic
- External jugular
- Internal jugular
- Common carotid
- A.The patient will be prepped from midchest to midthigh and as far as possible on each side.
- The circulator should ensure that blood is available for the patient.
- The arterial incision is made with a #10 blade on a long #3 handle.
- 2-0 or 3-0 silk ties can be used to ligate larger, deeper vessels
- What graft material is not recommended to be used in the popliteal space?
- PTFE
- Porous Dacron graft
- Saphenous vein
- Specialized knitted velour Dacron graft
- Which type of needle is appropriate for closing a blood vessel?
- Blunt
- Conventional cutting
- Taper
- Side cutting
- The external iliac arteries branch into the ________ arteries.
- Internal iliac
- Femoral
- Celiac
- Brachial
- Which drug is used to suppress arterial vasospasm?
- Avitene
- Hypaque
- Papaverine
- Heparin
- The _______ serves as a relay station for sensory impulses by channeling them to appropriate regions of the cortex for interpretation.
- Hypothalamus
- Thalamus
- Basal ganglia
- Pons
- The medulla oblongata controls which visceral activity?
- Cardiac
- Vasomotor
- Resporatory
- All of the above
- A ventricular shunt can be placed distally in the _________.
- Ventricle or the perineum
- Atrium or the peritoneal cavity
- Atrium or the throacic cavity
- Ventricle or the aorta
- What is the best temperature for irrigation used on the brain?
- Cold
- Hot
- Room temperature
- Body temperature
- Which statement is NOT correct regarding the placement of the bone flap?
- The bone flap is placed after the muscle layer is closed with an absorbable suture.
- The bone flap is placed after the dura has been securely closed.
- The bone flap remains on the sterile field throughout the procedure, typically in a solution of antibiotic saline.
- The bone flap can be fixated to the skull with the use of titanium miniplates and screws.
- The sphenoid bone forms __________.
- A small portion of the sides and floor of the cranium.
- A large portion of the sides and roof of the cranium.
- Portions of the base of the cranium, sides of the skull, and base and sides for the orbits.
- Portions of the roof and walls of the nasal cavity, the floor of the cranium, and walls of the orbits.
- The midbrain is located just below the _________.
- Hypothalamus
- Pituitary
- Thalamus
- Pons
- What nerve controls the voluntary muscles of the pharynx, larynx, palate, sternocleidomastoid, and trapezius?
- Accessory
- Hypoglossal
- Glossophryngeal
- Abducens
- What name is given to the room in the surgery department that contains sinks for gross decontamination of instruments?
- Substerile
- Sterile storage
- Decontamination
- Instrument
- The term PACU refers to the _________.
- Post ambulatory care unit
- Primary anesthesia care unit
- Post anesthesia care unit
- Preoperative ambulatory care unit
- Permanent surgical specimens are usually sent to the pathologist in __________.
- Saline
- Formalin
- A dry container
- A moist towel
- Operating room walls should have which characteristic?
- Surgically clean and tiled
- Bright white to create a sense of sterility
- Easy to clean with an antimicrobial solution The wiz full movie free.
- Mini blinds for pateint privacy
- The room where patients are 'recovered' immediately following surgery is known as the ____________.
- PACU
- JCAHO
- CPSD
- NCIU
- Which of the following is a reason a patient may be extubated in the recovery room instead of the operating room suite?
- Tachypnea
- Tachycardia
- Patient can breathe unassisted
- Patient cannot breathe unassisted.
- When stainless steel instruments are manually cleaned, a (n) ________ should be used to avoid scratching the surface of the instrument.
- Circular motion
- Abrasive cleanser
- Wire brush
- Back and forth motion
- What is a limitation of using water as a presoaking solution?
- Ineffective at removing dried debris
- Too expensive
- Not readily available
- Not a sterile solution
- Why should saline NOT be used to clean stainless steel surgical instruments?
- Saline is not virucidal
- Salt will pit the stainless steel
- Saline is not sterile
- Saline is expensive
- An enzyme is usually used as a (n) ____________.
- Sterilant
- Disinfectant
- Antiseptic
- Soaking solution
- Which of the following reflects the basic values for health care practice?
- Laws
- Standards
- Guidelines
- All of the above
- Accountability is defined as a (n) ___________.
- Disclosure
- Obligation
- Threat
- Evaluation
- Negligence is a breach of duty and is defined as ____________.
- An omission
- Perjury
- Tort
- Larceny
- When taking hot surgical instruments from a steam autoclave, the surgical technologist is responsible for cooling the instruments with __________.
- Alcohol
- Sterile saline
- Glutaraldehyde
- Sterile water
- What must be done to electrical devices in the operating room to prevent the risk of burns to the patient?
- Grounded properly
- Turned off prior to use
- Tested frequently
- Both A and C
- Loss or mishandling of a specimen could be considered negligence and could result in __________.
- Another surgical procedure
- Improper specimen preparation
- Improper specimen analysis
- All of the above
- The only method used to ensure the sterility of items is ____________.
- Chemical indicator strips
- Biological indicators
- Mechanical indicators
- Bowie-Dick test
- Implied consent may apply when ________.
- Consulting physicians agree
- The patient is conscious
- Conditions are discovered during surgery
- The patient is an emancipated minor
- In the health care field, the term _________ is used broadly to refer to the placing of information into a patient's medical record.
- Register
- Remodeling
- Documenting
- Diagram
- The dense connective tissue covering outer surface of bone diaphysis is termed:
- Perichondrium
- Periosteum
- Endosteum
- Exofibrium
- Articular cartilage
- Which of the following bones is considered a sesamoid bone:
- Sternum
- Ethmoid
- Femur
- Patella
- Phalanx
- These two components in bone are responsible for the hardness and pliability of bone:
- Osteoclasts & collagen
- Mineralized salts & osteocytes
- Mineralized salts & collagen
- Collagen & elastic fibers
- Collagen & mesenchyme
- A fracture in the shaft of a long bone would be a break in the :
- Epiphysis
- Metaphysis
- Diaphysis
- Epiphyseal plate
- Mesenchyme
- Yellow marrow consists of:
- Osteoprogenitor cells
- Blood cell progenitor cells
- Hyaline carilage
- Adipose
- Spongy bone
- Chondroblasts produce:
- Basement membranes
- Bone matrix
- Cartilage matrix
- Mesothelium
- Endothelium
- These structures are at the center of compact bone lamellae and carry blood vessels along the bone length:
- Haversain canals
- Canaliculi
- Perforating canals
- Osteocytes
- Lacunae
- The cell type that is responsible for maintaining bone matrix once it has formed is:
- Osteoclasts
- Chondrocytes
- Ostecytes
- Fibroblasts
- Osteoblasts
- Soft connective tissue membranes between the cranial bones at birth are:
- An indication of microcephaly
- Frontal sinuses
- Epiphyseal plates
- Cribriform plates
- Fontanelles
- Endochondral and intramembraneous are two mechanisms of:
- Bone remodeling
- Embryonic skeletal ossification
- Controlling blood calcium levels
- Carilage synthesis
- Which of the following is not a cranial suture:
- Epiphyseal
- Lambdoidal
- Coronal
- Sagittal
- Squamous
- The two pairs of bones that make up the hard palate are the right and left:
- Zygomatic and temporal
- Palatine and maxillae
- Maxillae and zygomatic
- Maxillae and mandible
- The two bones that make up the posterior nasal septum are the:
- Nasal and lacrimal
- Inferior nasal choncae and vomer
- Vomer and ethmoid
- Ethmoid and sphenoid
- Which of the following is the most serious or life-threatening:
- Deviated nasal septum
- Sinusitis
- Damaged cribriform plate
- Damaged or cleft palate
- Ruptured bursae
- 'Articulations' refer to:
- Broken bones
- The study of individual bones
- Bone growth and remodeling
- Structures on bones where muscles attach
- Joints
- Which of the following bone isnot part of the cranium:
- Sphenoid
- Palatine
- Ethmoid
- Occipital
- Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton:
- Femur
- Sternum
- Mandible
- Sacrum
- The 'Hunchback' of Notre Dame probably suffered from:
- Cleft palate
- Scoliosis
- Kyphosis
- Lordosis
- Spina bifida
- Incomplete closure of the vertebral column results in:
- Spina bifida
- Scoliosis
- Sinusitis
- Kyphosis
- Lordosis
- The thickened cartilage 'cushions' found in the knee and vertebral joints that absorb compression are:
- The menisci
- The bursae
- The ligaments
- The synovial capsules
- Epiphyseal plates
- Which of the following does not describe synovial joints:
- Bones held together by cartilage
- Joints surfaces of bones covered with articlating cartilage
- Has joint cavity
- Has 2- layered joint capsule
- Most freely movable of joints
- A ligament running along the side of the knee joint is a :
- Cruciate
- Bursae
- Collateral
- Patellar
- Which of the following is least likely to require arthroscopic surgery:
- Removal of a torn meniscus in the knee
- Removal of torn articular cartilage in the knee
- Repair of a torn lateral collateral ligament in the knee
- Repair of a torn anterior cruciate ligament in the knee
- The Haversian (central) canal in each osteon contains:
- Chondroitin sulfate
- Hydroxyapatite
- Osteoblasts
- Blood vessels
- Synovial fluid
- This hormone stimulates the breakdown of bone and the increase in blood calcium levels:
- Growth hormone
- Estrogen
- Parathyroid hormone
- Calcitonin
- The space in the middle of the thoracic cavity where the heart resides is the:
- Pericardial cavity
- Pericardium
- Pleural cavity
- Mediastinum
- Dorsal cavity
- Blood returning from the lungs enters the heart through the:
- Pulmonary semilunar vavle
- Mitral valve
- Right ventricle
- Left atrium
- Vena cava
- During ventricular systole?
- The atria are contracting
- The AV valves are closed
- The pressure inside the ventricles is less than in the atria
- The mitral valve is closed
- Blood is ejected into the atria
- A vertical plane through the body dividing it into right and left is termed:
- Sagittal
- Lateral
- Transverse
- Frontal
- The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except:
- Palms facing posterior
- Thumbs pointing laterally
- Face pointing anteriorly
- Body standing upright
- The number of microbes or organic debris that exist at a given time is referred to as ____________.
- Asepsis
- Contamination
- Bioburden
- Sterilization
- Which term is used to describe 'the multiplication of organisms in tissue'?
- Nosocomial
- Infection
- Cross contamination
- Culture
- Escherichia coli normally resides in the lumen of the ___________.
- Esophagus
- Trachea
- Intestine
- Urethra
- Bacilli are typically found to be in the shape of
- Spirals
- Rounds
- L forms
- Rods
- Bacteria that require oxygen to sustain life are called __________.
- Anaerobic
- Aerobic
- Rods
- Protozoa
- Which pathogen leads in the percentage of surgical site infections?
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Cryptosporidium
- Candida albicans
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- What dormant structure can some bacteria form to survive adverse environmental conditions?
- Vegetative state
- Spore
- Spirillum
- Lysogenic
- A nonliving particle that is completely reliant on the host cell for survival is called a ___________.
- Bacteria
- Fungus
- Protozoa
- Virus
- A bloodborne pathogen that puts health care workers at particular risk is ____________.
- Hepatitis C
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- All helminths
- Microbes that live on the skin and inside the human body are referred to as _____________.
- Symbiotic
- Indigenous
- Anaerobic
- Aerobic
- Drug administered within a joint is ___________.
- Subcutaneous
- Intravenous
- Intra-articular
- Dermal
- Drugs with a high potential to cause psychological or physical dependence and abuse are called __________.
- Over the counter medications
- Chemical substances
- Prescription medications
- Controlled substances
- The main function of the liver in metabolism is to __________.
- Break down drug molecules
- Transport the drug
- Absorb the drug
- Distribute the drug
- Pharmacodynamics describes the interaction of the ______________.
- Target organ and circulatory system
- Drugs and capillaries
- Heart and lungs
- Drug molecules and target cells
- The time is takes from the administration of a drug until its action becomes evident refers to __________.
- Transition period
- Onset
- Duration
- Function
- What theory states that the active substance in a drug has an affinity for a specific chemical constituent of a cell?
- Drug-enzyme interaction
- Drug-receptor interaction
- Membrane interaction
- Antagonistic drug interaction
- Which of the following focuses on altering the patient's level of consciousness and minimizing pain and awareness?
- Conduction blockade
- General anesthesia
- Hypnosis
- Amnesia
- Which of the following is the generic name for Marcaine?
- Pitocin
- Xylocaine
- Bupivacaine
- Novocain
- Which agents selectively interrupt the associative pathways of the brain?
- Opioids
- Dissociative
- Induction
- Tranquilizers
- When stainless steel instruments are manually cleaned, a (n) ________ should be used to avoid scratching the surface of the instrument.
- Circular motion
- Abrasive cleanser
- Wire brush
- Back and forth motion
- What is a limitation of using water as a presoaking solution?
- Ineffective at removing dried debris
- Too expensive
- Not readily available
- Not a sterile solution
- The ultrasonic washer is an example os a __________.
- Sterilizer
- Mechanical decontamination unit
- Physical decontamination method
- Bioburden
- The washer decontaminator does NOT render the instruments __________.
- Sterile
- Surgically clean
- Disinfected
- Safe to handle
- At the end of the washer sterilization cycle, instruments are NOT considered ____________.
- Safe to handle
- Appropriate for use on the patient
- Ready for assembly into sets
- Ready for processing
- An intermediate level of disinfection may be appropriate for __________.
- Semicritical items
- Critical items
- Microsurgical instruments
- GI instruments
- Physical factors that affect the efficiency of disinfection are __________.
- Time, temperature, pressure
- Humidity, temperature, pressure
- Temperature, gross debris, bioburden
- Temperature, bioburden, time
- To prevent the formation of condensate in nested basins( double basin), what must be done?
- Seperate the basins with a towel
- Do not nest the basins
- Ensure metal to metal contact
- Seperate the basins with a plastic sheet
- Which would be best suited for reprocessing surgical instruments exposed to clostridium?
- Glutaraldehyde
- Cidex
- Isopropyl alcohol
- Pre-vac
- The process used to relieve pain during surgical intervention refers to __________ administration.
- Tranquilizer
- Anesthesia
- Narcotics
- Neuromuscular block
- Which risk is not associated with gerneral anesthesia?
- Cardiac arrest
- Shock
- Muscle relaxation
- Allergic reaction
- Demerol, Sublimaze, Sufenta, and Alfenta are examples of ___________.
- Opioids
- Dissociative agents
- Narcotic antagonists
- Hypnotic agents